onioncheese4
onioncheese4
03-09-2020
Mathematics
contestada
Why is 4 + (-3) equal to 1?
Respuesta :
agreenlee
agreenlee
03-09-2020
This is because 4+(-3) is also 4-3. So that equals 1
Answer Link
raushan197308
raushan197308
03-09-2020
Step-by-step explanation:
4+(-3)=1
because when you open brackets + and - will be -, so 4-3=1
Answer Link
VER TODAS LAS RESPUESTAS ( 76+ )
Otras preguntas
How much is 1/3% of $57,834.00?
Stalin made a secret ______ with Germany called the Nonaggression Pact. A. present for Mexico B. deal or agreement C. language D. word peace declaration
Photography can trace its roots back to the mid-18th century?
What do the rough endoplasmic reticulum golgi apparatus and lysosomes have in common?
Graph a point with the given coordinate. Draw a number line from –1 to 1. Put tick marks at eighths. point m, coordinate of Which is true about point
The first archaeological evidence of agriculture was found in which of these areas around 8000 BCE? 1.China 2.Central America 3. Middle East 4. Europe
I need to simplify this complex fraction and show all the steps leading to the answer
How much is 1/3% of $57,834.00?
The expansion of Islam resulted in European expansion in which of the following ways?
The process of debt servicing involves paying off ___________. A. accumulated interest B. face value of the loan C. both A & C
