Samdeck3239 Samdeck3239

14-07-2018
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For what reason were political developments in south asia fundamentally different from those of southwest asia?

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JhoMelKing JhoMelKing

26-07-2018

The correct answer to this question is the letter D.

It says that South Asia had a small number of regional states and consequently had fewer oppositions that prompted ruling classes to unify their dominions.

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